Questions Regarding the Book of Mormon - Part 3

This time I’ll address problems with Jacob, Mosiah, Alma, and Helaman.  I want to note that in these postings, I have read many — if not most — of the typical LDS responses.  I just want to challenge any Mormon to give me a response and see if it can hold water.  So let’s look at today’s list of problems in the Book of Mormon.

1.  Jacob 1:15 calls polygamy a wicked practice, yet God later gave Joseph Smith the revelation approving it.  Is God inconsistent? 

2.  Jacob 2:24, 27 also vilify polygamy.  Jacob 3:5 again reiterates the command.  How does this square with D&C 132?

3.  Jacob 4:1 tells us that only a little of the words can be written because of the difficulty of engraving the plates.  Why then are the Nephite prophets so wordy?  There are numerous examples; many sentences are 200 to 300 words long, there are 2000 "and it came to pass" phrases, and in 4 Nephi 1:6 there are 57 words just to say 59 years passed by.  Alma 13:7 even has the phrase, "or in other words," a phrase that should have been left out of difficult writing.

4.  Jacob 7:27 ends with the French word "adieu"!  Why would God have Smith translate suddenly into French?

5.  Mosiah 2:3 says, "And they also took of the firstlings of their flocks, that they might offer sacrifice and burnt offerings according to the law of Moses."  According to the law of Moses the firstlings of their flocks were never offered as burnt offerings or sacrifices.  All firstlings belonged to the Lord and could not be counted as a man's personal property - whereas all burnt offerings, or sacrifices for sin of every kind, must be selected from the man's own personal property, or be purchased with his own money for that purpose, while all firstlings of the flock, as the Lord's property, came into the hands of the high priest, and by him could be offered up as a peace offering, not as a burnt offering or a sin offering, himself and family eating the flesh.  This error in Mosiah proves that the Book Of Mormon could not have come from God.

6.  Mosiah 13:12-24 is Exodus 20:5-17 KJV, including the error of "kill" for "murder".  Why wouldn’t God have had Smith translate the word to “murder” rather than follow KJV?

7.  Mosiah 14 is Isaiah 53 KJV with the usual problems.  Mosiah 15:14-17 is Isaiah 52:7-10 and Mosiah 15:29-31 is Isaiah 52:8-10.

8.  Mosiah 21:28, in the original 1830 version, stated that King Benjamin had a gift from God, corrected to King Mosiah in later versions.  If Joseph dictated from what he was seeing translated by a gift of God, how did he make this error?

9.  Mosiah 27:13. The use of the word "Church" throughout this book is anachronistic, but this verse in particular contradicts Matthew 16:18.

10.  Why does Alma 7:10 says that Jesus will be born in Jerusalem when the Bible says Bethlehem? 

11.  Alma 10:3 says that Nephi and Lehi were descendants of Manasseh, yet in Mosiah 2:3 we found them offering sacrifices according to the law of Moses.  The Bible says only the descendants of Aaron can offer these sacrifices (Ex. 28:40-43; Num. 3:3-10; 1 Chron. 23:13; 2 Chron. 26:18; Heb. 7:12-14).  How is this contradiction explained?

12.  Alma 13:15.  "...tithes of one-tenth part..."  Tithe means one tenth; did God not know that?

13.  In the book of Alma 28:14-29:1-11, more than 30 changes have been made from the 1830 edition, and page 303 of the original edition had the statement, "Yea, decree unto them that decrees which are unalterable" (Alma 29:4), which has been deleted.  Why has this been removed?

14.  Alma 46:15 tells us there were people called Christians in 73 BC.  The Bible tells us the first use of the word "Christian" was in Antioch.  Which is correct?

15.  Alma 54:4 uses the Greek word "epistle", which means "letter".  This word continues to be used throughout the text.  Why would God have Smith translate Egyptian into a Greek word when he could have just used “letter”?

16.  Helaman 8:20 talks of Ezias and Isaiah.  Ezias is Greek for Isaiah - they are the same person. Did God not know this?

17.  Helaman 9:6 says, "Now, immediately when the judge had been murdered - he being stabbed by his brother by a garb of secrecy."  "Garb" is a piece of clothing; how do you stab with clothing?

18.  Helaman 12:25-26:  What was Helaman reading when he quotes John 5:29?  John wasn't written for at least another 90 years.

19.  Helaman 14:20,27 says the earth would be darkened for three days at Jesus' death.  The Bible says the darkness lasted three hours.  Which is correct?

 These are not insignificant problems!!

Questions Regarding the Book of Mormon - Part 2

In this post I will be questioning things in 2 Nephi.

1.  2 Nephi 2:6, 8 uses the word “Messiah.”  Why not use “Christ” as with chapter 10?

2.  2 Nephi 5:  How could Nephi and just a small handful of men, in less than 20 years, build a temple like Solomon's, when it took Solomon 7 1/2 years using 180,000 workers to complete his temple?

3.  2 Nephi 5:15, 16:  What is the difference between precious "ores" and "things"?  vs 15 says that precious "ores" were in great abundance, but in the next verse he says that "precious things" were not to found upon the land!  Isn’t this contradictory?

4.  2 Nephi 6:16-18 is a copy of Isaiah 49:24-26 KJV.  This problem is the same as addressed in 1 Nephi in Part 1 of this series.

5.  2 Nephi 7 is Isaiah 50 KJV with minor changes.

6.  2 Nephi 8 is Isaiah 51 KJV with minor changes.

(The problem with these two is the same as noted about 1 Nephi.)

7.  2 Nephi 9:18.  Enduring crosses is an idiom based on the crucifixion.  It is anachronistic here.

8.  2 Nephi 10:3 uses the term "Christ".  This is a Greek word for the Hebrew "Messiah".  Both mean "The Anointed".  Why would this be translated as “Christ” rather than “The Anointed?”  The name "Christ" is then used throughout the text of the Book of Mormon.  If these people are Jews, why aren’t they using Hebrew instead of Greek?

9.  2 Nephi 12 through 2 Nephi 24 are Isaiah 2 through 14 KJV with aforementioned problems associated with being identical to KJV.

10.  2 Nephi 14:5 copies the King James error in Isaiah 4:5 by saying, "For upon all the glory shall be a defense."  The Hebrew word mistranslated by King James translators was "chuppah", which means a protective curtain or canopy, not "defense".  The only way this error could be present is if the author was copying KJV instead of translating “Reformed Egyptian.”

11.  2 Nephi 17:14 uses the word "virgin" as does KJV, but the original Hebrew was merely, "young girl", who may or may not be virgin.  "Virgin" comes from the Greek Septuagint.  How is it that ‘Reformed Egyptian” translates like Greek?

12.  2 Nephi 22:2 would not use the word JEHOVAH.  This is a Latinized transliteration of YHWH in Hebrew, which combines the Latin letters JHVH with the vowels of Adonai.

13.  2 Nephi 24:12 uses the word "Lucifer".  This is a Latin word from the Vulgate.  The Hebrew word meant "morning star" or "star of the morning".  KJV just kept the Latin, and Joseph Smith copied KJV!  (See my article about “Lucifer”).  I think this error, along with all the copying of KJV, is one of the proofs that Smith wrote the Book of Mormon rather than translated it from an unknown language.

14.  2 Nephi 25:19  We have now added "Jesus" to Christ, another Greek name for the Hebrew "Y'shua" or "Joshua".  Why do Jews in the Americas use Greek before Greek was used in the empire in Asia?

15.  2 Nephi 26 begins the use of the word "Gentile", another Greek word.  Hebrew calls them "Goyim".

16.  2 Nephi 29 talks of a "Bible".  The word is from Greek, not Egyptian.  It merely means "book".  The Bible was not named as such until it was canonized.  Otherwise, the material is known as the Scripture.  It also discusses the lost tribes of Israel.  At this time they were not "lost", but to God they are never lost anyway!  Another problem is that it states the Bible came from the Jew, but only the O.T. came from them.

17.  2 Nephi 30:6, until 1981, said that the Lamanites would turn “white and delightsome” when they embraced the Mormon doctrine.  In 1981 this was changed to read, not “white,” but “pure.”  Could it be because no one was turning white as Smith claimed?

18.  2 Nephi 30:9, 11-15 is copied from Isaiah 11:4-9 KJV.   The same KJV problem.

19.  2 Nephi 31 has baptism following Jesus' example, yet Jesus has not come yet?!?  How does anyone follow an example which hasn’t been demonstrated?

20.  2 Nephi 31:21 is a clear statement of the doctrine of the Trinity that LDS now claim is an error. Why were the Nephites given all the knowledge of Jesus Christ, whereas the Jews in Israel were not?

Again, how are these oddities explained?

Questions Regarding the Book of Mormon - Part 1

Eleven years ago I posted this series, but unless one is looking for such information they probably won’t see the series. So I’m re-running them for a new audience. The point of this series on the Book of Mormon is to make people THINK.  So with that introduction, here is part 1 of the series.

Three thoughts to start with:

1.  The translation of the Book Of Mormon was purportedly done by revelation and, therefore, no error of man should have been involved; no wrong names, no wrong words or grammatical errors, nothing to delete or add to the original translation.  If any additions or corrections are made, there is no way that the new editor can know what the original manuscript (the plates) actually said and, therefore, no change to the original translation should be made.  Another problem throughout is the use of New Testament doctrine, which would be anachronistic before Christ died.

2.  Hebrews and Egyptians of the same period of time as the people in the Book of Mormon used prepared animal skins or papyrus for writing; why would the people of this Mormon record engrave on brass and gold plates? Engraving is a slow process—even slower if the engraver casts his own plates—so one would expect the engravers to be very concise!  Yet the Book of Mormon is very wordy.

3.  Orson Pratt stated, about the Book of Mormon, "This book must be either true or false.  If true, it is one of the most important messages ever sent from God...If false, it is one of the most cunning, wicked, bold, deep-laid impositions ever palmed upon the world, calculated to deceive and ruin millions who would sincerely receive it as the word of God, and will suppose themselves securely built upon the rock of truth until they are plunged with their families into hopeless despair.  The nature of the message in the Book Of Mormon is such, that if true, no one can possibly be saved and reject it; if false, no one can possibly be saved and receive it."

So the question I will be asking in this series of posts I’m beginning today is, “Can the Book of Mormon be true?”  Lets’ begin looking at my questions, addressing the book of 1 Nephi.

1.  1 Nephi 1:  Why is the record made in Egyptian by a Jew?  Especially since he lived his whole life in Jerusalem? Hebrews hated Egyptians and considered the Hebrew language to be sacred.  Besides this, why has no one ever found evidence of a “Reformed Egyptian” language from which the Book of Mormon was purportedly translated?

2.  1 Nephi 1:4, 13-14; 2:2:  The LDS claim that there can only be one prophet of God on earth at a time.  Lehi is said to have dwelt in Jerusalem during the first year of the reign of King Zedekiah, but according to Jer. 1:1-3; 37:1-2, Jeremiah was the prophet of God in Jerusalem at that time.  So according to LDS, Lehi could not have been a true prophet of God.

Another problem with Lehi being a prophet of God is that he prophesied that many inhabitants of Jerusalem would perish and that he and his family should depart from the Babylonian captivity.  But Jer. 27:6-17; 29:4-9 says this was the message of the false prophets.  God said that none of the captives were to be free, and they were to live and serve the king of Babylon in peace.  False prophets claiming otherwise would perish!  How do you solve this contradiction between the Bible and the Book of Mormon?

3.  1 Nephi 2:  Lehi, in 600 BC, takes his family out of Jerusalem during Nebuchadnezzar's siege, traveled on foot for three days in the wilderness and came to a valley through which flowed a river that ran into the Red Sea.  According to 1 Nephi 16:12-13, they were traveling in a south-southeast direction.  Historical details of the siege tell us that anyone breaking out of Jerusalem was chased down and killed.  Even if Lehi's family did escape, travel under good conditions would be about three miles per hour and the three days travel would take them about 75 miles, to the southern tip of the Dead Sea.  It would have taken them 7 days of favorable travel to reach the closest tip of the Red Sea.  There are no rivers in that part of the world.  After reaching "Bountiful" on the Persian Gulf, Nephi was commanded to go to the mountains for instruction on building the ship. There are no mountains for several hundred miles from the Persian Gulf.  How is this geographic problem solved?

4.  1 Nephi 2:5 has Lehi naming his son "Sam".  Isn't this an American nickname for "Samuel"?

5.  1 Nephi 4:9 has Laban with a steel sword.  Nephi himself claims to have had a steel bow (the word translated as steel in KJV Psalms 18:34 is more properly rendered as bronze).  How is this explained since steel did not exist until well over 1000 years after the Book of Mormon was completed?

6.  1 Nephi 8 Lehi has a dream wherein a river of water (8:13) and a fountain (8:20) are major symbolic factors.  In Chapter 11, the dream is interpreted for Nephi by an angel and he is told that the waters represent the love of God (11:25).  However, when the angel gives further counsel (12:16), we find the "love of God" has become "filthy water", and in chapter 15:26-29, the water is called "filthiness" because it represents the "awful hell" prepared for the wicked.  Isn’t there inconsistency in God's message?

7.  1 Nephi 10:  Uses the word "baptize".  This is a Greek word, the meaning of which is to wash or immerse in water.  Why is the Greek word here?

8.  1 Nephi 11:18 originally stated in the 1830 Book of Mormon, "Behold, the virgin which thou seest, is the mother of God” (a Catholic title, by the way).  This verse now reads, "Behold, the virgin whom thou seest, is the mother of the son of God."  How is this change explained since there were no plates to refer to?

9.  1 Nephi 11:21.  Page 25 of the 1830 edition says, "And the angel said unto me, Behold the Lamb of God, yea even the eternal father.”  In later editions it reads, "And the angel said unto me: Behold the Lamb of God, yea, even the son of the eternal Father!"  How is this change explained?

10.  1 Nephi 11:32 in the 1830 version said, "And I looked and beheld the Lamb of God...yea, the everlasting God was judged of the world."  The passage now reads, "...yea, the Son of the everlasting God…"  Why the change?

11.  1 Nephi 18:25:  How did domestic animals, such as horses, pigs, sheep, cattle and donkeys, come to be found in about 590 BC when evidence confirms these animals did not exist in the New World until after the time of Columbus?  In addition to this error, the Nephites produce wheat and barley (Mosiah 9:9) rather than the indigenous maize and potatoes. Ether 9:19 even has elephants in the New World!  How are these things explained?

12.  1 Nephi 19:10 mentions crucifixion.  This method of punishment was unknown at this period of time. (This word shows up again in many other places.)  Also, the prophecy is that there would be three days of darkness at Jesus' death, yet there is nothing about this in the Bible.

13.  1 Nephi 20 is virtually word-for-word KJV Isaiah 48, even down to the same verse numbers; chapter divisions first appeared in the Latin Vulgate in the 11th century and verse numbers first appeared in the 1500s!  Verse two contradicts Isaiah by saying they "do not stay", while Isaiah says they do “stay".  Another problem is the use of italicized words from KJV - they were inserted by the KJV translators!  This is the same problem in all the following KJV quotes throughout the Book of Mormon.  So aside from explaining how chapter and verse divisions could show up in a book written almost 2000 years before these divisions were first made, how can you explain “Reformed Egyptian” being translated into English and ending up word-for-word identical to 1611 English translation of Hebrew?  Why would Joseph Smith translate into obsolete English to begin with?  This problem runs throughout the Book of Mormon.

14.  1 Nephi 21 has the same problem as above; it is Isaiah 49 with a longer introduction and a few deletions and changes.  Verse 1 uses the word "pastors", which is anachronistic.  The word pastor simply means shepherd.

How are these oddities explained?

Did They Really Say That?!?

The Seer, p. 215 “Questions and Answers On Doctrine…

Q. What does the Lord require of the people of the United States?
A. He requires them to repent of all their sins and embrace the message of salvation, contained in the Book of Mormon, and be baptized into THIS church, and prepare themselves for the coming of the Lord.
Q. What will be the consequence if they do not embrace the Book of Mormon as a divine revelation?
A. They will be DESTROYED from the land and SENT DOWN TO HELL, like all other 

generations who have rejected a divine message!” 

Apostle Orson Pratt

The vast majority of the people in the USA are NOT LDS nor will they ever be and yet none are destroyed, nor have been destroyed, for denying/denouncing the Book of Mormon.

H/T: Life After Ministry.

Lots of Thoughts About Mormonism

First, I want to point you to an OUTSTANDING site for examining and exposing the teachings of the LDS. The site is titled Life After Ministry. I have pointed my readers to articles from there a few times already and this time I will be sharing links to more of their articles. But before that, check out this video where Joseph Smith disagrees with his own Book of Mormon, as well as other LDS doctrines.

More Mormon lies/contradictions, this time being about polygamy.

I’ve been reading Shelby Foote’s three-volumes series on the American Civil War—the war that freed the slaves. What I find amusing is that Brigham Young said the war would NOT free the slaves. Thanks to Life After Ministry for exposing this false prophecy.

What is a Saint? Certainly what the LDS tells you.

Why are Italicized KJV Verses in the BoM? I’ve actually dealt with this in some of my examinations of the books in the Book of Mormon.

Joseph Smith said Hell is an Agreeable Place. This one gave me a laugh because Smith knows now that he was wrong!

Marriage and Childbirth Mandatory for Salvation.  Can someone please show me from Scripture that this is true?!? No one can because it is a LIE.

Moroni, Who was He? 2025.  Interesting question with an excellent answer.

Three Nephites and Apostle John Still Alive.  Oh really? Just another absurd claim from an LDS “prophet.”

Do We Have Heavenly Parents? If so, what about heavenly grandparents, great-grandparents, etc? Do Our Ancestors Need Us? Of course out ancestors don’t need us because we can’t do anything for them!! They just go on having eternal sex. Godhood and sex are the primary doctrines of the LDS.

LDS Advice for Sexual Abuse Victims. Of course they get to decide if the abused person was culpable. Disgusting blaming of the victim.

Sort of like Roman Catholics, Mormons will have Mary as queen to some people—oh and she marries Adam. Say What?!?!

Joe Smith Prophesied Mormons Won’t Have to Cook. Since Mormons are still cooking their meals (unless they all go out to eat), this is another false prophecy by Smith—among many false prophecies which prove he was a false prophet.

If Plural Marriage Isn’t True, Faith is in Vain. Of course Joseph Smith claimed the right of polygamy was given by God because he was committing adultery and said prophecy was for him to defend his peccadilloes to his wife. Of course over time he also “married” other men’s wives while they were off on mission trips; i.e. serial adultery. So, since it was a lie that God allowed this, then according to Orson Pratt the faith of Mormons is in vain!

Children of Apostates Will Have Dark Skin. Well, I was once a Mormon and then became a Christian, making me an apostate to Mormonism. So why are my children’s skin not dark/black?

Well, all this should make any reasonable person take a hard look at the LDS faith and see that it is not of God. Period.