Wednesday, October 29, 2014

Questions Regarding the Book of Mormon - Part 2

In this post I will be questioning things in 2 Nephi.

1.  2 Nephi 2:6, 8 uses the word “Messiah.”  Why not use “Christ” as with chapter 10?

2.  2 Nephi 5:  How could Nephi and just a small handful of men, in less than 20 years, build a temple like Solomon's, when it took Solomon 7 1/2 years using 180,000 workers to complete his temple?

3.  2 Nephi 5:15, 16:  What is the difference between precious "ores" and "things"?  vs 15 says that precious "ores" were in great abundance, but in the next verse he says that "precious things" were not to found upon the land!  Isn’t this contradictory?

4.  2 Nephi 6:16-18 is a repeat of Isaiah 49:24-26 KJV.  This problem is the same as addressed in 1 Nephi in Part 1 of this series.

5.  2 Nephi 7 is Isaiah 50 KJV with minor changes.

6.  2 Nephi 8 is Isaiah 51 KJV with minor changes.

(The problem with these two is the same as noted about 1 Nephi.)

7.  2 Nephi 9:18.  Enduring crosses is an idiom based on the crucifixion.  It is anachronistic here.

8.  2 Nephi 10:3 uses the term "Christ".  This is a Greek word for the Hebrew "Messiah".  Both mean "The Anointed".  Why would this be translated as “Christ” rather than “The Anointed?”  The name "Christ" is then used throughout the text of the Book of Mormon.  If these people are Jews, why aren’t they using Hebrew instead of Greek?

9.  2 Nephi 12 through 2 Nephi 24 are Isaiah 2 through 14 KJV with aforementioned problems associated with being identical to KJV.

10.  2 Nephi 14:5 copies the King James error in Isaiah 4:5 by saying, "For upon all the glory shall be a defense."  The Hebrew word mistranslated by King James translators was "chuppah", which means a protective curtain or canopy, not "defense".  The only way this error could be present is if the author was copying KJV instead of translating “Reformed Egyptian.”

11.  2 Nephi 17:14 uses the word "virgin" as does KJV, but the original Hebrew was merely, "young girl", who may or may not be virgin.  "Virgin" comes from the Greek Septuagint.  How is it that ‘Reformed Egyptian” translates like Greek?

12.  2 Nephi 22:2 would not use the word JEHOVAH.  This is a Latinized transliteration of YHWH in Hebrew, which combines the Latin letters JHVH with the vowels of Adonai.

13.  2 Nephi 24:12 uses the word "Lucifer".  This is a Latin word from the Vulgate.  The Hebrew word meant "morning star" or "star of the morning".  KJV just kept the Latin, and Joseph Smith copied KJV!  (See my article about “Lucifer”).  I think this error, along with all the copying of KJV, is one of the proofs that Smith wrote the Book of Mormon rather than translated it from an unknown language.

14.  2 Nephi 25:19  We have now added "Jesus" to Christ, another Greek name for the Hebrew "Y'shua" or "Joshua".  Why do Jews in the Americas use Greek before Greek was used in the empire in Asia?

15.  2 Nephi 26 begins the use of the word "Gentile", another Greek word.  Hebrew calls them "Goyim".

16.  2 Nephi 29 talks of a "Bible".  The word is from Greek, not Egyptian.  It merely means "book".  The Bible was not named as such until it was canonized.  Otherwise, the material is known as the Scripture.  It also discusses the lost tribes of Israel.  At this time they were not "lost", but to God they are never lost anyway!  Another problem is that it states the Bible came from the Jew, but only the O.T. came from them.

17.  2 Nephi 30:6, until 1981, said that the Lamanites would turn “white and delightsome” when they embraced the Mormon doctrine.  In 1981 this was changed to read, not “white,” but “pure.”  Could it be because no one was turning white as Smith claimed?

18.  2 Nephi 30:9, 11-15 is copied from Isaiah 11:4-9 KJV.   The same KJV problem.

19.  2 Nephi 31 has baptism following Jesus' example, yet Jesus has not come yet?!?  How does anyone follow an example which hasn’t been demonstrated?

20.  2 Nephi 31:21 is a clear statement of the doctrine of the Trinity that LDS now claim is an error. Why were the Nephites given all the knowledge of Jesus Christ, whereas the Jews in Israel were not?


Again, how are these oddities explained?

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